How would you explain this verse? "In all their affliction he was afflicted, and the angel of his presence saved them: in his love and in his pity he redeemed them; and he bore them, and carried them all the days of old." (Isaiah 63:9 KJV)
I completly believe that Yeshua, the Messiah of Israel, is the Angel of YHWH. See these verses and decide for yourself:
Shemot (Exo) 23:20-23 ” Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for my name is in him. But if thou shalt indeed obey his voice, and do all that I speak; then I will be an enemy unto thine enemies, and an adversary unto thine adversaries.”.
Paul said: Paul says in Acts 27:23 “For there stood by me this night the angel of God, whose I am, and whom I serve”
If you want to read more about it go to : https://answersintorah.wordpress.com/2016/10/28/yeshua-the-angel-of-elohim-the-messiah-of-israel/
Blessings to all.
Trinitarians reject that the Angel of God's Presence is Jesus Christ. Therefore, their dogma rejects that Jesus Christ was afflicted. They reject salvation being granted by Jesus Christ. They also reject that Jesus Christ redeems believers. So, if Jesus Christ didn't bear our sins and carry them all the days of old, then who died for our sins if not Jesus Christ?
Jesus is the only begotten son of God (John 3:16) .It is an indisputable fact that like "always" begets like and it is also obvious that God is not an angel so how can Jesus be an angel? How can a divine God give birth to something that is not God? Besides, the intent of the verse is glaring to all those who have eyes to see.
In all their affliction he was afflicted, = referring to God
the angel of his presence saved them= referring to the angel that God sent
in his love and in his pity he redeemed them; and he bore them, and carried them all the days of old= Referring to God